For example, English speakers commonly mix up your/you’re or there/their/they’re. I’m curious about similar mistakes in other languages.

  • neutron@thelemmy.club
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    In Korean we have these conjugated forms. They both sound the same:

    1. 나아 [na.a] (from 낫다) be/become better
    2. 낳아 [na.a] (from 낳다) give birth (to a baby)

    So when given A as an example:

    (A) 감기에 걸렸어요. I got a cold.
    (B) 빨리 나으세요! Hope you get better soon!
    © 빨리 낳으세요! Hope you give birth soon!

    For some reason Koreans across all ages write C instead of B by mistake. It became a national joke at this point and some do it ironically on purpose. I used to teach Korean. Imagine my face every time.

    There are more but I’m on my phone. Will do more later.

  • 𝕱𝖎𝖗𝖊𝖜𝖎𝖙𝖈𝖍@lemmy.world
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    I’m Spanish, n and ñ are different letters. They are not substitutes. It is the difference between someone being 5 years old and someone having 5 anuses.

    “Yo tengo 5 años / yo tengo 5 anos”

    Looking at you, Will Shortz

    • Fosheze@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      I am guilty of doing that but only because my computer keyboard doesn’t have an ñ.

      • geoma@lemmy.ml
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        or configure your keyboard as English international, dead tildes. You can use ~ with an n to produce an ñ. At least in gnu/Linux that’s easy to do

      • YTG123@feddit.ch
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        Use double n, that’s the archaic way of spelling that (tilde derives from n on top of another n)

      • burak@lemmy.ml
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        1 year ago

        Liar you just used it. Just admit you don’t like ñ’s dope haircut.

        • Fosheze@lemmy.world
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          I’m not on my computer. My phone keyboard does all sorts of fun crazy things; some of them are even intentional.

      • BOMBS@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        For people on Linux, hit [Ctrl]+[Shift]+[u] then type [0] [0] [f] [1]. That will enter an ñ when you hit the next key.

        • fubo@lemmy.world
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          For people on Linux, enable the compose key in your keyboard settings and then type [Compose] [n] [~].

          The compose-key method for entering accented letters is by far the easiest to use for any desktop OS … but it’s not enabled by default because you have to give up some modifier key to use it.

          • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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            It’s completely off-topic but Compose is amazing. Specially as you can actually customise it for your usage, with a .XCompose file. For me it’s the only think that makes phonetic transcription flow, otherwise you got to shift layouts back and forth to write something like “[tɾɐ̃skɾi’sɜ̃ʊ̯] ⟨transcrição⟩”.

            Here’s mine, if anyone is interested.

            • Evkob@lemmy.ca
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              Based solely off this comment, I just wanna say you seem like such a cool person. Anyone who has a custom file on their OS to facilitate using IPA characters is good people in my book.

          • BOMBS@lemmy.world
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            1 year ago

            ñ…woah! I just tried it by switching the [Menu] key to a compose key. That’s so much easier. Thanks for sharing 🙂

      • Lupus108@feddit.de
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        On windows, hold ‘alt’ and then type the numbers 1 6 4 for lower case and 1 6 5 for upper case ñ.

        That’s their places in the ASCII table, you can do that with any special characters, look up their place in the ASCII table, press alt and the respecting number, release alt and voila.

        • TheGreenGolem@lemm.ee
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          SO many people don’t know the ALT+Number combo nowadays it’s surprising. I learnt about it in 4th grade in elementary school in 1999.

      • Phen@lemmy.eco.br
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        Be happy that it doesn’t: brazilian keyboards added an extra key for “ç” right in the middle of the keyboard and it’s pretty useful, until the day you have to use any other keyboard and realize that if you configure it to use the brazilian layout, you’re not losing the “ç”, you lose the comma, or question mark, or exclamation mark or something much more annoying to be left without.

        Now you either learn to type again with another keyboard layout, or spend the rest of your life using only cheap keyboards made in brazil that have the “right amount” of keys.

  • Arturo Serrano@lemm.ee
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    In Spanish, we have these words:

    hay (there is) ahí (over there) ay (ouch)

    And it’s infuriating when people can’t pick the right one in writing.

  • Illecors@lemmy.cafe
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    Less. It’s used eveywhere, although should only be used with uncountable nouns.

    Less drama is prefered.

    Fewer items left on the shopping list.

    • CanadaPlus@futurology.today
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      There’s a certain level of irony in correcting people’s language while not reading the original question properly yourself.

      • Rachelhazideas@lemmy.world
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        There’s a certain level of irony in correcting someone for misreading the prompt when you’ve misread it yourself.

        Two false assumptions you’ve made here:

        1. That English speakers are incapable of speaking other languages

        2. That the word ‘native’ can’t refer to English speakers

        As an example, someone who speaks English and Spanish is qualified to answer this question. The word ‘native’ is ambiguous and can refer to either native English or Spanish speakers. This person can answer the prompt completely in English and still be correct.

        • CanadaPlus@futurology.today
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          Maybe syntactically, but I feel like reading it that way is probably a violation of pragmatics. In other words, it’s highly unlikely that’s in the spirit of the question.

          This is made even clearer if you read the text of OP, which specifies “other” (non-English) languages.

      • randint@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz
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        Thank you! I often feel the urge to use “less” before a countable noun despite knowing that I’m supposed to use “fewer.” Good to know that it isn’t just me.

      • Illecors@lemmy.cafe
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        I see your point, but my personal view is that I like order. I don’t even care too much about specific kind of order. Chaotic-looking things can also be in-order (my favourite example is Vietnamese traffic).

        I would argue at least is not equal to the least. It’s a different word, despite being spelt the same. There are a few examples like that which, unfortunately, escape me at the moment.

        Also, don’t mean any offence, but text is difficult to relay that - I’ve literally loled at you mispelling grammar in the sentence talking about grammar and spelling :D

        • CanadaPlus@futurology.today
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          I’m actually with you - building out our plural system would be a satisfying direction for English to go. Unfortunately, I don’t see “at fewest” catching on. Maybe I’ll try it out a few.

          If you look at non-standard dialects of English, it seems like the most natural thing is for the aspect system to grow out as the language evolves further (and unfortunately lose some of it’s symmetries).

  • Björn Tantau@swg-empire.de
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    In German people tend to increase “only” (das einzige). As in, they say something is the “onliest” (das einzigste). It’s usually a good indicator of someone’s education.

    In many regions it is common to do comparisons with “as” (wie). As in “My dog is bigger as yours” instead of “My dog is bigger than yours”. The most infuriating thing about this is that most people doing that mistake don’t even acknowledge that it is one. At least people who say “onliest” can be convinced that it is wrong.

    Technically not an error but still annoying is to append an apostrophe and an s to a name to indicate the genitive. Like in “Anna’s food is good”. In German that should be written as “Annas Essen ist gut”. But due to many people making the same mistake (I guess also because we’re used to it from English sentences) it has been allowed to use an apostrophe. So in that case I’m just a grumpy old guy.

    • Elise@beehaw.org
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      In Dutch it’s also common to use als (as) instead of dan (than). Technically it’s wrong though.

      • sndrtj@feddit.nl
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        This gets really confusing if you’re from Limburg. In Limburgish, “daan” (the cognate to Dutch “dan”) only exists as the time indicator. With comparisons the correct Limburgish is to use “es” for differences (e.g. “Jan is groeter es Maria”, “John is bigger than Mary”), and “wie” for equivalents (e.g “Jan is eve aajd wie Maria”, “John is as old as Mary”). Now “es” is cognate to Dutch “als”, but using it in Dutch as in Limburgish is wrong. So yeah this gets confusing.

    • DirigibleProtein@aussie.zone
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      In many regions it is common to do comparisons with “as” (wie). As in “My dog is bigger as yours” instead of “My dog is bigger than yours”.

      I’m (re-)learning Yiddish at the moment, and “as (wie)” is a common construction; it’s interesting to see which words and sentence formats are common (between German and Yiddish), and which aren’t. I wonder if that’s where this usage comes from.

    • BruceTwarzen@kbin.social
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      Oh god before i read your comment i thought i have nothing to add. Then i realised that i know people who say things like: als wie. Mein hund ist grösser als wie deiner.

    • mayonaise_met@feddit.nl
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      In Dutch, the only (one) is “de enige”. People often use “de enigste”, which actually means the cutest. Enig -> enigste.

      “Ik ben als enigste over” “Ja, schattig ben je zeker”

      "“Ich bin der Einzigste, der noch übrig ist” “Ja, du bist wirklich süß”

      “I’m the only one left.” “Yeah, cute you sure are”

    • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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      Technically not an error but still annoying is to append an apostrophe and an s to a name to indicate the genitive.

      Even technically I’d consider it an error - the genitive/“possessive” apostrophe in English highlights that you’re dealing with a clitic, attached to the end of the noun phrase; e.g. the dog**'s** food` → the dog and the cat**'s** food. In German however it doesn’t behave like a clitic, it’s a plain declension; e.g. das Futter des Hundes → das Futter des Hundes und der Katze - you’re switching words, not moving them.

      I wonder if that’s because most people nowadays use von+Dative instead.

      • tvarog_smetana@lemm.ee
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        Not a native speaker, so I could be wrong about this:

        I’ve seen a construction using proper nouns (eg. Annas Haus) where an “s” indicates possession, but no apostrophe. This doesn’t seem to apply to non-proper nouns (das Haus der Frau) and is different from normal genitive construction that adds an “s” to masc/neut noun genders (das Haus des Mannes)

  • okiloki@feddit.de
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    I really hate when native English speakers use could of or would of. It makes no sense and sounds completely wrong, yet some people claim it’s just a minor mistake.

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    That English natives have so much trouble distinguishing effect from affect keeps surprising me.

    As for Dutch, the dt-issue is presented as if it is this hugely complicated set of rules. While in reality it is dead simple. Third person in the present time is ALWAYS conjugated as stem+t for regular verbs, except in ONE case: when the stem already ends in t. Dt isn’t special, it’s just the rule applied to all stems.

    • Stovetop@lemmy.world
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      I think the main issue with that one is that they’ve become homophones in a lot of regional accents, a secondary part of it is that they are semi-related concepts, and the third part of it is that there are also technically noun and verb versions of each.

      X affects Y, X has an effect on Y.

      The affected happiness effect effected a positive affect.

    • mayonaise_met@feddit.nl
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      My school taught this whole convoluted system that was meant to help students with multiple tenses, but I just learned to apply the “ik loop” mnemonic which is so effortless (to native speakers at least.)

      Sometimes I have to think once or twice about soft ketchup/'t Kofschip for the past participle, but that’s about it.

    • rbhfd@lemmy.world
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      I think the main errors happen with “voltooide deelwoorden” (past participle). Then you need mnemonic devices like “'t kofschip” to know whether it’s t or d (or determine it using what you would say in the past time of the verb). It doesn’t help that e.g., “gebeurt” and “gebeurd” both are correct depending on the tense used.

      Also the fact that the t drops when the verb is inversed in the 2nd person singular present tense, and not e.g., past tense (“Je wordt” but “Word je”) is a weird rule.

      It’s not thát complicated and if you pay attention, you should be able to get it all right. That’s why I think such mistakes are more a sign of carelessness and not of stupidity.

      • sndrtj@feddit.nl
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        The second person during a question is still no special rule for dt. It’s still very regular. For all regular verbs it’s just stem (without the +t).

        Examples:

        Praten -> stem = praat -> praat jij? Worden -> stem = word -> word jij? Surfen -> stem = surf -> surf jij?

        No irregularity for stems ending in d.

        • rbhfd@lemmy.world
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          It’s an easy rule, yes. It’s also an easy one to overlook if you’re not paying attention.

          “Word je blij?”, but also “wordt je moeder blij?”.

          It’s not like people don’t understand the rule. No native Dutch speaker would say “Loopt jij?”

    • DefederateLemmyMl@feddit.nl
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      Third person in the present time is ALWAYS conjugated as stem+t for regular verbs

      It gets more complicated in the second person though, with the inversion exception.

      • sndrtj@feddit.nl
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        But again, there is no special exception for dt. Again it’s the regular rule applied: second person conjugation in questions is just the stem for regular verbs.

  • crispy_kilt@feddit.de
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    • could of (could’ve)

    • try and (try to)

    • if I was… (if I were)

    • effect/affect

    • less / fewer

    • not adapting adjectives, like “this fits real good” (really well)

  • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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    Due to Linguistics I spend more time trying to analyse the feature than judging it.

    That said, two things that grind my gears, when it comes to Portuguese:

    • Usage of the gerund for the future tense; e.g. *estaremos enviando (roughly, “we will send”) instead of “vamos enviar” or “enviaremos”. My issue here is not grammatical, but that this construction usually marks lack of commitment.
    • “Cuspido e escarrado” (spat and coughed up) to highlight the striking resemblance between two things or people. When the saying is supposed to be “esculpido em Carrara” (sculpted in Carrara).
    • RufusLoacker@feddit.it
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      Wait, the resemblance thing is also used in other languages: “spitting image” in English, for example, and “copia sputata” in Italian. I’m actually wondering for the first time where it comes from, so maybe there’s a reason for the Portuguese saying to be related to spit

      • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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        I think that there is some semantic association between spitting and copying, that all three languages are using. (I wonder how modern it is; photocopy machines spitting copies come to my mind.)

        However in Portuguese it might be also because most people don’t know the reference of the original saying (the marble sculptures of that Tuscan city), so they parse it as a phonetically similar saying. And in quick speech they do sound similar, e.g. for me:

        • esculpido em Carrara - [(e)skʊ(w).'pi.dẽ.kɐ̥.'hä.ɾɐ]
        • [cópia] cuspida e escarrada - [kʊs.'pi.des.kɐ̥.'hä.dɐ]
        • RufusLoacker@feddit.it
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          From a quick search that didn’t provide anything really insightful, it seems that at least in Italian the term has been used since the XIV century, so it’s not photocopy related

          • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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            Yeah, if copia sputata is so old there’s no way that it’s from those machines.

            Digging further on the expression it seems to be old in English too, attested in 1689. And the only explanation that I’ve seen to account to Italian and English both having it is religious in nature - while not biblical it seems common the idea that God spat into the clay to create Adam.

            Speaking on Italian: people (often native speakers) messing with the apostrophe bug me a bit, it’s a good example for this thread. Specially un’ followed by a masculine word; e.g. *un’altro for un altro. It tilts the autocompletion inside my brain, expecting a word and getting another in place. I’m not native speaker though so this likely plays a role.

    • Lupec@lemm.ee
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      Good points overall! I’d add that in my opinion “estaremos enviando” is closer to “we will be sending”, which also better conveys the odd, misplaced telemarketer politeness vibes it carries.

      • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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        we will be sending

        This. I was struggling to convey the aspect, but you got it right IMO. And, pragmatically, it’s more like “we might be sending”, with that might highlighting that it probably won’t.

          • Lvxferre@lemmy.ml
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            I believe that it’s more used in dialects spoken in Brazil than elsewhere, but even in Brazil it’s considered poor grammar. Specially given that both nós conjugations¹ and the synthetic future² are falling into disuse, so it sounds like trying to speak fancy and failing hard at it.

            EDIT: now it clicked me why you likely said so; it’s common in European dialects to use “a enviar” (gerundive infinitive) instead of “enviando” (traditional gerund)³. The phenomenon that I’m talking about can be used with either, e.g. “estaremos a enviar”; for me it’s the same issue, people would say “estaremos a enviar” instead of “enviaremos” to throw the event into a distant future that might never happen.

            1. They’re still fairly used by older people in speech, but there’s a clear gen gap with younger folks using “a gente” almost exclusively.
            2. almost completely replaced by conjugated ir + infinitive.
            3. Note that “enviando” is still fairly used in Alentejo and the Algarve.
  • bouh@lemmy.world
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    As a French speaker, I’m not mad at foreigners for not speaking French. I’m very tolerant for all their mistakes and I will help them if they want to.

    I’m mad at French speakers mistakes though. Like people mixing first person futur and imparfait. Or people saying digital instead of numérique (those ones I hate them).

    • Evkob@lemmy.ca
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      Like people mixing first person futur and imparfait.

      Just to clarify, do you mean stuff like saying “je serais là demain” (“I would be there tomorrow”) rather than “je serai là demain”? (“I will be there tomorrow”)?

      • bouh@lemmy.world
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        Yes indeed. The mistake comes from mispronunciation : je serai was originally pronounced “Je seré”. But parisiens especially and in many other places they started to pronounce “Je serè” exactly like the imparfait. So now they can’t make the difference. What’s funny is that they always invert both, the error is made for both in like 80% of the cases. I find this properly fascinating.

  • beerclue@lemmy.world
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    In Romanian we have an “i” situation.

    One kid = un copil Two kids = doi copii The kids = copiii (the article goes at the end of the noun)

    To be = a fi (You) be nice = fii cuminte

    It can be confusing, but the amount of people that are eating the ending "i"s is infuriating.

  • Evkob@lemmy.ca
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    I’m a native French speaker, specifically from the Acadian parts of the province of New-Brunswick (Canada). We have a lot of vocabulary, grammar and syntax that people who speak a more standard French might frown upon (lots of borrowing from English but also a lot of old French words which disappeared in Europe but not here, as well as some Indigenous influences). Fuck anyone who judges our dialect and accents, I love the way we speak.

    That being said, there are a few things that bother me:

    1. The pleonasm “plus pire” (most worst, or most most bad). There are a few common pleonasm but this one is the only one that truly irks me for some reason.

    2. “Si que” (if that) because of something that was drilled into me by my dad, “les si n’aiment pas les que” (“the ifs don’t like the thats”). Using “si que” is like saying “if that I say this” rather than “if I say this”.

    The more I think about it the more I guess my stance on this is that deviating from standard French is fine and even cool when it adds meaning or nuance. I just dislike it when it’s purely redundant.

    • morras@links.hackliberty.org
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      In France there are some mistakes that became social markers.

      People following conspiracy theories are mostly bad educated people, and they wrongly conjugate some verbs.

      The most common examples are:

      • “Nous sachons”, instead of “Nous savons” (we know)
      • “Ils croivent” instead of “Ils croient” (they think, they believe)
      • “Comme même” instead of “Quand même” (nonetheless, despite, kinda hard to translate)

      Making one of those mistakes will immediately tag you as a fool.

      • Saigonauticon@voltage.vn
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        Interesting, in Quebec I’ve never heard the conjugations to the left!

        When we need to strategically indicate this kind of thing, we just curse excessively. Often they are strung together into a profane litany that continues on for some time! I always thought it was quite artful.

      • Evkob@lemmy.ca
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        Like Saigonauticon, I’ve never heard any of these!

        In my neck of the woods you’ll find people adding a first person plural ending to third person plural verbs (ex: “elles mangeons” instead of “elles mangent”) which is common enough to not bother me or strike me as a sign of stupidity, and at least differenciates between the singular and plural forms of a verb.

        One thing I didn’t mention in my original comment that does bother me is something kinda similar some people do with the verb “être”, like a teacher I had in high school. Instead of “ils étaient”, she’d say “ils sontaient”, simply adding the typical imparfait conjugation ending to the present “ils sont”.

        Les cours avec elle sontaient un peu tristes, et malheureusement assez représentatifs de la qualité de mon enseignement.

    • Zagorath@aussie.zone
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      1 year ago

      So is it like saying “si que le jet est un 20 natural” instead of “si le jet est un 20 natural”? Just adding the word “que” in there without reason? Or does it only happen in certain contexts?

      • Evkob@lemmy.ca
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        1 year ago

        I’m not a linguist, and studies about the French in my region are few and far between, so I’m not comfortable stating anything as fact. However, as far as I can tell, it’s not context-dependant and never adds any meaning.

  • Saigonauticon@voltage.vn
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    1 year ago

    I am a non-native speaker of Vietnamese. There are some pretty horrible mistakes you can make, honestly. I’ll go through a few of them.

    In Vietnamese, non-native speakers often confuse the word for ‘mother in law’ with the word for the male genitalia.

    Also the word for “large” with the word for the female genitalia. So when ordering e.g. a large meal, if in doubt, just use the word for L (“luh”) instead of lớn.

    When referring to your mother-in-law, practice with your partner before the first meeting. Then, quickly ask for permission to call her “mother”, which is easier for non-native speakers to pronounce.

    Finally, the word for ‘martial arts’ and ‘Vietnamese wife’ differs only by a single tone. If you make the mistakes above, you may perhaps find out why that is – usually via the medium of a flung sandal :P

  • Maram@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    Loose and lose. I just don’t get it. I can understand when the words sound the same, like with the yours and the theirs but Loose and Lose don’t sound the same. Like reading loose out loud in those sentences where it should be lose just sounds stupid.

    • deo@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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      1 year ago

      I think it’s because English isn’t super consistent with the spelling of vowel sounds. Consider also “choose” (rhymes with “lose”) and “chose” (which doesn’t rhyme with either).

      I guess really the vowel sound in loose/lose is basically the same; the difference is whether or not the “s” makes a “s” sound or a “z” sound… It is admittely odd that the presence or absence of an extra “o” would affect the sound of an adjacent constant (especially when we have a perfectly good “z” character available).

      Which reminds me of my pet peeve: when people use “breath” or “cloth” instead of “breathe” or “clothe”.

    • nixcamic@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      There’s no phonetic reason, the double oo and single o make the exact same sound in most dialects and there’s no reason the s should sound like a z in lose.

  • randint@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz
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    1 year ago

    I’m a native speaker of Mandarin Chinese from Taiwan. Some people often mix up 在 (zài) and 再 (zài) in writing. It’s a bit hard to explain their definitions since they are merely function words (words that have little lexical meaning and express grammatical relationships among other words within a sentence), so I’m just gonna copy and paste their definitions from an online dictionary:

    在: to exist; to be alive / (of sb or sth) to be (located) at / (used before a verb to indicate an action in progress)
    再: again; once more; re- / second; another / then (after sth, and not until then) / no matter how … (followed by an adjective or verb, and then (usually) 也 (yě) or 都 (dōu) for emphasis)

    As you probably have noticed, their meanings don’t overlap at all. The only reason some people mix them up is because they are homophones.

    Another typo some… let’s just say, less educated, people often make is 因該 (yīn’gāi). The correct word is 應該 (yīnggāi), meaning should; must. 因該 is never correct. You can think of 因該 as the Chinese version of the much dreaded “should of.” The reason is that the distinction of -in and -ing is slowly fading away in Taiwan (it is still very much thriving in other Chinese-speaking societies), and some people just type too sloppily to care.

    By the way, I should mention that 在, 再, and 應該 are very basic words, probably one of the first 500 words a non-native speaker learns.

    • CarrotsHaveEars@lemmy.ml
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      1 year ago

      Ah, classical mistakes when they write instead of typing. At least when they type they can suggestions from the IME, hinting they might be making a mistake.

      Those ‘similar’ words you mentioned all have different tone or vowel in Cantonese. Not at all close to each other. I bet they sound slightly different too in Banlamgu, if you happen to speak that.

      • randint@lemmy.frozeninferno.xyz
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        1 year ago

        I don’t speak Bân-lâm-gú unfortunately. I just looked up those words, and they do sound slightly different!

        • 在: tsāi
        • 再: tsài
        • 應該: ing-kai
        • 因: in

        (For Chinese learners reading this, please note that the tone markers in the romanization of Bân-lâm-gú (Southern Min, a group of languages including Hokkien, Taiwanese, etc.) is different from those used in Pinyin for Mandarin.)

        I also looked up how these words are pronounced in Cantonese. They sure are really different! Mandarin really does have a lot more pairs of homophones and near-homophones compared to other dialects.

        On a semi-related note, I think it’s really sad that the majority of Chinese dialects are slowly being replaced by Mandarin.

        • toastal@lemmy.ml
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          1 year ago

          On a semi-related note, I think it’s really sad that the majority of Chinese dialects are slowly being replaced by Mandarin.

          It really is. If not too disruptive, I always make a speaker clarify “which Chinese language” as I guess the propaganda + ignorance has worked leading many to believe there is just one language of China. …And it’s not just English treating it this way either.