• TheFriendlyDickhead@lemm.ee
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      4
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      7 months ago

      Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense

            • schmidtster@lemmy.world
              link
              fedilink
              arrow-up
              1
              arrow-down
              1
              ·
              edit-2
              7 months ago

              For someone who only posts insulting others and correcting (incorrectly a bunch too….) their grammar, you sure lack any amount of reading comprehension.

              Its always the loudest people who are the most guilty, I appreciate the lengths you go to prove this is still true.

                • schmidtster@lemmy.world
                  link
                  fedilink
                  arrow-up
                  1
                  ·
                  edit-2
                  7 months ago

                  I’ve tried just reporting them before. Doesn’t seem to do anything, so sorry for having to point it out. See this person all over Lemmy in lots of communities.

                  And just had an interaction yesterday, so had to see what was new with them. Again, my apologies for bringing this to your attention, wasn’t bringing an argument in.

    • ℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.social
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      7 months ago

      In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.