cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162
Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there’s still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.
This article title makes ZERO sense. Empty house tax, sure.
But an “income” tax on no rent being paid?
Why would that EVER be passed by the people who own all of the houses? Don’t waste the poors’ time lol
“Income tax on no income” is exactly what imputed income is, as mentioned by OP. Free perks from an employer are, for example, (in the US), taxed as income.
https://www.hrblock.com/tax-center/income/what-is-imputed-income/
That’s just not solid logic
They can extrapolate the supposed income by looking at how much they asked previous renters.
How is that an “income” tax? Make it make sense.